Verbal Questions on English Grammar for Campus Recruitment

What is Campus Recruitment Process?

Generally, a Campus Placement Process has four components:

 * Pre Placement Talk 

 * Aptitude test 

 * Group Discussion 

 * Interview which can be various combinations of Technical and HR rounds 

Aptitude Test for Placements:

The Aptitude test consists of basic problems in quantitative ability, logical reasoning, and verbal ability. The primary objective of this test is to check the problem-solving skills of the test-taker. Any job out there is the problem-solving skills. It is essential to understand what the problem is and how the problem should be solved. So, the application of the learning is the Aptitude test.

Take a Free Campus Placement Mock Test

Please read the below blogs to know the detailed campus recruitment process of respective companies: 

Amazon Recruitment Process TCS Recruitment Process
IBM Recruitment Process Capgemini Recruitment Process
Wipro Recruitment Process Deloitte Recruitment Process
Tech Mahindra Recruitment Process Infosys Recruitment Process
Cognizant Recruitment Process Accenture Recruitment Process

Tips and Tricks to solve the Verbal Ability Questions for Campus Recruitment Test

  • If you want to stand out & beat the competition in your Campus Placements, the first step is to ace the Written Aptitude Test. Reasoning  Aptitude contributes a lot to increase your scores. No aptitude test is complete without questions based on coding, series & odd man out 
  • Methods of learning in one chapter can be used in other chapters
  • Whether the Question is simple or difficult you can know the options.
  • Focus on all areas in verbal will help you crack verbal section

Watch the below video to learn Tips & Tricks to crack Questions verbal ability out in Campus Recruitment Exams.

The Following questions are based on verbal ability:

Question Formats

1. Fill in the blanks

→ Articles and determiners

→ preposition and phrasal verbs

2. Sentence with parts highlighted

→ Option+nochange required

3. One sentence was given in multiple ways

→ Option+No error

4. 3/4 Parts+ No error

5. Multiple sentences are given, to select Correct / Incorrect

→ More than one option.

Fill in the blanks-Articles:

1. Yesterday I heard __ interesting story which is___ the best I have heard.

A. a, an

B. the, a

C. an, the

D. the, an

Answer: C

Explanation: 

For blank 2

The superlative words have 'the' article in front of the word.

For example tall, taller, tallest(Tallest is the superlative word)

Good, better, best (Best is the superlative word).

For blank 1

Image9e6906b1 5722 479f 89ae 43246210ba52

According to the sentence, the word 'story' is a countable noun and it is a singular noun.

The word 'story' is a general word so, the article will be a/an

The correct answer is the option C.

Fill in the blanks- Determiners

2. I hadn't taken_____ sugar of late, and that has helped me reduce weight.

A. many

B. much

C. a little

D. few

Answer: B

Explanation:

According to the sentence, the sugar is the uncountable noun.

Determiners are such words like many, much, little, few.

Many, few can be used for the countable nouns.

Determiners are depended on positive and negative sentence.

The word 'much' is used for the negative sentence.

The word 'a little' is used for the positive sentence.

Above, a question is the negative sentence so much determiner is used. 

Fill in the blanks: Phrasal Verbs

3. They had to____ the match until tomorrow because of the heavy rain.

A. put on

B. put of

C. put in

D. put after

Answer: B

Explanation:

Phrasal verbs =verb+ preposition

The option B satisfy the given sentence.

The meaning of put of is a delay

Fill in the blanks: preposition

4. I like going____ a walk,______ the beach____ night.

A. on, across, by

B. to, towards, in

C. for, along, at

D. by, at, into

E. in, through, into

Answer: C

Explanation:

According to the question,

For blank 1 we cannot say on a walk, by a walk, in a walk.

For blank 2 we cannot say across the beach, at the beach, through the walk.

For blank 3 we cannot say by night, in night, into night

But we can say in morning, in evening.

So, the correct option is C 

The part highlighted Part 1.

5. The student who has won four medals are my neighbour's son.

A. is

B. be

C. have

D. has

E. no error

Answer: A

Explanation:

The sentence is in simple present. and the underlined word is also in the simple present.

Here, we are using the relative pronouns such as, who, whom, which, that.

The sentence is about one student. so, the singular word should be used.

so, the answer is 'A'

The part highlighted Part 2.

6. Soon after the Tsunami had killed thousands of people along the coast of southern India, the parliament passes a bill that proposed to set up an institutional mechanism to respond promptly to natural disasters.

A. passed a bill that proposed

B. passes a bill with purpose

C. pass a bill proposing 

D. passed a bill which propose

E. No correction required

Answer: A

Explanation:

According to the sentence we have to break the sentence into parts, breaking parts can be done by

→ Identify all preposition.

→ Punctuation

→ Words like that we can use to break the sentence.

The sentence is in the past tense so, the underlined part should be in the past tense.

Options B, C is in the simple present.

Option D is in the past tense but in the place of 'propose' it should be 'proposed'.

so, option A is the correct answer.

Multiple ways:

7. Identify the correct sentence:

A. Three hours are the time given to complete this test.

B. Three hours is the time given to complete this test.

C. Three hours have been the time given to complete this test.

D. Three hours are being the time give to complete this test.

E. Three hours were being the time given to complete this test.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The option E  "were being the time given" is not the proper way we have to use "was being given".

The option D "are being the time give" it doesn't have the structure.

The option C passive voice is wrong. so we cannot determine it.

The option A, B can depend on the Subject-Verb Agreement.

Three hours is a duration. The duration should be the uncountable noun.

The duration can be treated as "singular".

The option A  will be the correct answer.

Parts+No error

8. Identify the Incorrect option.

A. If they have planned.

B. to go out for dinner.

C. they may had not asked their mind

D. to set the table ready.

E. No error.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The option 'A' have 'if' in it. 

so, it is a conditional statement with three basic varieties.

The option C is incorrect because in the place of "may had not" we have to use "would not have"

The correct sentence is "they would not have asked their mind".

9. Identify the Incorrect option.

A. Economics had

B. lost it's appeal

C. for me by

D. the time I left school.

E. no error.

Answer: B

Explanation:

In the option B, it's stand for economics.

it means possive.

There is no apostrophe in its.

Click and Practice more question and 136 Test papers on English Grammar of Top Company's
Published in Test Patterns

Verbal Questions on Grammar for Campus Recruitment

What is Campus Recruitment Process?

Generally, a Campus Placement Process has four components:

 * Pre Placement Talk 

 * Aptitude test 

 * Group Discussion 

 * Interview which can be various combinations of Technical and HR rounds 

Aptitude Test for Placements:

The Aptitude test consists of basic problems in quantitative ability, logical reasoning, and verbal ability. The primary objective of this test is to check the problem-solving skills of the test-taker. Any job out there is the problem-solving skills. It is essential to understand what the problem is and how the problem should be solved. So, the application of the learning is the Aptitude test.

Take a Free Campus Placement Mock Test

Please read the below blogs to know the detailed campus recruitment process of respective companies: 

Amazon Recruitment Process TCS Recruitment Process
IBM Recruitment Process Capgemini Recruitment Process
Wipro Recruitment Process Deloitte Recruitment Process
Tech Mahindra Recruitment Process Infosys Recruitment Process
Cognizant Recruitment Process Accenture Recruitment Process

Tips and Tricks to solve the Verbal Ability Questions for Campus Recruitment Test

  • If you want to stand out & beat the competition in your Campus Placements, the first step is to ace the Written Aptitude Test. Reasoning  Aptitude contributes a lot to increase your scores. No aptitude test is complete without questions based on coding, series & odd man out 
  • Methods of learning in one chapter can be used in other chapters
  • Whether the Question is simple or difficult you can know the options.
  • Focus on all areas in verbal will help you crack verbal section

Watch the below video to learn Tips & Tricks to crack Questions verbal ability out in Campus Recruitment Exams.

The Following questions are based on verbal ability:

Error Identification:

1. Identify the incorrect sentence.

A. The popular tropical island

B. in the Indian Ocean is mountainous

C. and is remarkable for its beautiful sceneries

D. and its exotic wildlife

E. No error.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Identify the prepositions and conjunction to break the sentence.

According to the sentence, the error is in Noun.

According to the option, 'A' tropical island is the singular noun.

The whole sentence should have the singular nouns.

But, in option C sceneries is the uncountable noun but it is in the plural form.

so, it is the incorrect option.

2. Identify the incorrect sentence.

A. The sole criteria

B. which is considered for the position of

C. the Head of the Department

D. is education

E. No error

Answer: A

Explanation:

According to the sentence Identify the preposition to rebreak the sentence.

The sole criteria| which is considered for the position| of the Head of the Department| is education.

'which' is considered as the relative pronouns.

some of the relative pronouns are who, which, whom, whose, that.

sole is singular, criteria are in plural.

In the place of criteria, it should be the criterion.

so, the option 'A' is incorrect.

3. Identify the incorrect sentence.

A. There are as many as 300,000 child soldiers

B. who are presently in

C. at least two dozens armed conflicts

D. around the world

E. No error

Answer: C

Explanation:

Firstly, rebreak the sentence.

There are as many as 300,000 child soldiers| who| are presently in at least two dozens armed conflicts around the world.

'who' can be determined as the relative pronouns.

According to the option A.

Soldiers can be treated as the noun.

child is the adjective. child is the singular word.

The adjective should be in the singular form.

But in the option C dozen is the adjective so it should be in the singular form.

so, the option C is incorrect.

4. Identify the correct sentence.

A. The newly enrolled student turned pages after pages while waiting for the teacher.

B. The newly enrolled student turned pages after page while waiting for the teacher.

C. The newly enrolled student turned page after pages while waiting for the teacher.

D. The newly enrolled student turned page after page while waiting for the teacher.

E. The newly enrolled student has turned pages after pages while waiting for the teacher.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Firstly divide the sentence into the segments, Now we have to identify the correct sentence.

"while waiting for the teacher" is the continuous tense. so, we can have simple past but not past perfect.

so, option E is eliminated.

Whenever we have used the same noun using the preposition in the middle the noun should be singular.

In the option D, 'after' is the preposition we are using the singular noun page before and after the preposition.

so, option D is correct.

5. Identify the incorrect sentence.

A. A long and wooden table

B. and the table's

C. beautifully carved chairs

D. grace the center of the hall

E. No error.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Firstly divide the sentence,

A long and wooden table| and | the table's beautifully carved chairs| grace the center of the hall.

grace is the verb of the sentence.

It is in the possessive case. The possessive case can be applied to the living things.

In the option B table is the non-living thing possessive case cannot be applied.

The sentence can be written as: A long and wooden table and the beautifully carved chairs grace the center of the hall.

so, option B is incorrect.

Phrase Replacement:

6. The students informed me that they had gone to the residence of one of their teachers and had stayed there.

A. one of their teachers' residences

B. one of their teachers residences

C. one of their teacher's residences

D. the residence of one of their teacher

E. No correction required.

Answer: E

Explanation:

Simple concept:

• One of many → One should be singular, many should be in plural.

• If the subject is in singular and the verb should be in the singular.

The option A  creates illogical confusion. so, it is eliminated.

The option D the word teacher should be plural so, it is eliminated.

The option  B if the teacher is in the possessive case it should have the apostrophe.

If the teacher is adjective, it should be in the singular.

The option C there are multiple residences for the single teacher, so, it is incorrect.

Identify the correct option:

7. Identify the correct option

A. The rich's lifestyles are just not compatible with ideas such as commitment and responsibility in a relationship.

B. The rich's lifestyle are just not compatible with ideas such as commitment and responsibility in a relationship.

C. The lifestyles of the rich are just not compatible with ideas such as commitment and responsibility in a relationship.

D. The lifestyles of rich are just not compatible with ideas such as commitment and responsibility in a relationship.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The word 'rich' is adjective because we are using 'the' article in front of the rich.

The word rich does not have the possessive case. so, the option A, B are eliminated.

The option D does not have 'the' in front of the word rich so it is treated as the noun.

If in case it is noun possessive case should be used.

so, option D is eliminated.

The correct option is C.

Error Identification

8. Identify the incorrect sentence.

A. Some women  who

B.  wear high heeled shoes have

C. difficulty maintaining her

D. balance without assistance

E. No error.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Firstly, rebreak the sentence.

Some women| who wear high heeled shoes| have difficulty maintaining her balance without assistance.

The pronouns are who, her.

The word 'her' represent women.

The word women is plural her should be in the plural form.

so in the place of 'her', we have to place their.

so, option C is the identification of error.

9. Identify the incorrect sentence.

A. One should use

B. one's best contract

C. if he wishes to succeed

D. in the corporate world

E. No error

Answer: C

Explanation:

The pronoun that is used as 'one' than the other pronoun again it was standing for the same 'one' should be matched with the previous pronoun.

One should be matched with one.

so, in the place of 'he' one should be used.

10. Identify the incorrect sentence.

A. If the board of

B. directors control the

C. company, they may

D. for a raise

E. No error.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The word 'board' is in the singular and the verb 'controls'should be in the singular.

The pronoun should be in the singular

But in the option C the pronoun 'they' is in the plural.

In the place 'they' we have to use 'it'.

so, option C is incorrect.

11. Identify the incorrect sentence.

A. Your's is

B. the  best offer

C. he has had so far

D. and he is quite happy about it

E. No error.

Answer: A

Explanation:

possessive pronouns do not have an apostrophe.

Examples of possessive pronouns are yours, hers, mine, theirs, etc.

option A was incorrect.

Phrase Replacement

12. The Caribbean reef shark chases it's prey through the coral.

A. chases their prey through the coral 

B. chases its prey through the coral 

C. chases theirs prey through the coral 

D. chases their's prey through the coral

E. No error

Answer: B

Explanation: 

The word their's does not have the apostrophe because it is the phrasal pronoun. so, option D is eliminated.

The word 'theirs' cannot be formed. so, option C is eliminated.

'reef shark' is singular so we have to use the singular word.

so, option B is the correct answer.

Identify the correct option:

13. Identify the correct sentence.

A. Myself and the manager distributed the appraisal letters last week

B. Ourselves and the manager distributed the appraisal letters last week

C. Himself and the manager distributed the appraisal letters last week

D. The manager  and I distributed the appraisal letters last week

E. I and the manager distributed the appraisal letters last week

Answer: D

Explanation:

According to the question the self forms are

myself, ourselves, himself, herself, itself, them selves, yourself

Click and Practice more question and 136 Test papers on English Grammar of Top Company's
Published in Test Patterns

Personal Interview questions for Campus Recruitment

What is Campus Recruitment Process?

Generally, a Campus Placement Process has four components:

 * Pre Placement Talk 

 * Aptitude test 

 * Group Discussion 

 * Interview which can be various combinations of Technical and HR rounds 

Aptitude Test for Placements:

The Aptitude test consists of basic problems in quantitative ability, logical reasoning, and verbal ability. The primary objective of this test is to check the problem-solving skills of the test-taker. Any job out there is the problem-solving skills. It is essential to understand what the problem is and how the problem should be solved. So, the application of the learning is the Aptitude test.

Take a Free Campus Placement Mock Test

Please read the below blogs to know the detailed campus recruitment process of respective companies: 

Amazon Recruitment Process TCS Recruitment Process
IBM Recruitment Process Capgemini Recruitment Process
Wipro Recruitment Process Deloitte Recruitment Process
Tech Mahindra Recruitment Process Infosys Recruitment Process
Cognizant Recruitment Process Accenture Recruitment Process

Tips and Tricks to solve the Personal Interviews Questions for Campus Recruitment Test

  • If you want to stand out & beat the competition in your Campus Placements, the first step is to ace the Written Aptitude Test. Reasoning  Aptitude contributes a lot to increase your scores. No campus recruitment is complete without the personal interview.
  • Methods of learning in one chapter can be used in other chapters
  • Whether the Question is simple or difficult you can know the options.
  • Focus on all the Personal Interviews questions will help you to crack this session.

Watch the below video to learn Tips & Tricks to crack Questions on Personal Interview in Campus Recruitment.

The Following questions are based on Personal Interview:

If the interviewer asks Tell me something about you?

→ Talk about your past and tell them something how amazing things that you have done that is one way to impress the company

In the interview, if you don't the answer what should we have to say?

→ I'm very sorry sir I am not able to recall

Some cases in Technical Interview it will be possible that they ask the question which your not sure about it?

→ Guess the answer but if you want to tell them it is a guess, nothing wrong in it.

→ Sir, I am not sure, Let me make a guess so, the answer is this. 

Sometimes a question is asked, Immediately the student will answer I don't know the answer. Is this is the right way to answer?

→ No, it is not the good way to answer and it is the bad thing.

What is an Interview?

→ Interview supports creating a good impression create a time possessive impression in the mindset of a person who is talking an interview make the interviewer fall in love with you that is well you have learned of cracking an Interview. 

If the interviewer asks what are your weaknesses?

→ The interview is about selling not about speaking.

→ Does not expose all your weaknesses.

→ Don't get over excited to tell your weaknesses

→ Tell only one weakness and elaborate on it.

→ Don't tell the stupid weakness such as Eyesight, Handwriting, Typing these all are the stupid weaknesses.

→ Don't talk about your grand weaknesses. grand weaknesses such as health issues etc.  

→  you can mention the weaknesses and change them in the positive direction.

For eg:- My weakness is Nervousness especially when I'm not prepared. But I realize that this Interview is very important to me. so,  I'm preparing for the last one month.

→ you can mention the lack of English skills is my weakness.

→When you are talking about the weakness it doesn't seem like the strength had been hidden in the weakness.

→ we have to give good answers and make them great answers.

Tell me about one great achievement that you have done?

→ It depends on who is asking

For eg: you are the member of the college cricket team and won the trophy and you are the caption of the volleyball team.

In the company, they don't give the leadership position. so we have to mention the member of the college cricket team.

But if you're going to the MBA interview. we have just cracked the CAT exam. you have to mention the caption of the volleyball team.

→ I believe that my greatest achievement that I learned from my failures.

When they are so many people in  panel how to wish them?

→If they are both men and women in the panel so we have to wish them twice.

Good morning mams.

Good morning sirs.

Once you have to observe all the people in the interview.

Can we talk about past failure of interview either in Resume or Interview?

→ yes, But we have to be careful how you are conveying.

If you do not answer the Question in the Interview?

→ I'm sorry sir, I don't answer this question but after the interview, I will go and refer the answer.

→ I'm very sorry, I'm not able to recall, But  I can guess the answer.

Why should we hire you?

→ I know the fact is that many other people are amicable to this job.

  1. My passion is for Technology.
  2. I also made presentation on critical development for technology.

Can kindness be a weakness?

→ yes, kindness can be a weakness. Actually, kindness can be a strength but we have to define it why it is your weakness.

→ Every strength and weakness can be explained in the form of the example.

Being punctual is a good strength?

→ yes, it would be a good strength.

For eg: I believe my punctual is my greatest strength  I am the person that I never miss my class. In fact every single year I make an 85% attendance.  I am proud of that.

Can I include hobbies that are not related to the profession?

→ yes, It is the hobbies to enjoy your life (or) to relax. Never minded related to the profession.

Click and Practice More 120+ Questions based on Top Company's Personal Interview Questions
Published in Test Patterns

Campus Reasoning questions on Coding, Number Series & Odd man out

What is Campus Recruitment Process?

Generally, a Campus Placement Process has four components:

 * Pre Placement Talk 

 * Aptitude test 

 * Group Discussion 

 * Interview which can be various combinations of Technical and HR rounds 

Aptitude Test for Placements:

The Aptitude test consists of basic problems in quantitative ability, logical reasoning, and verbal ability. The primary objective of this test is to check the problem-solving skills of the test-taker. Any job out there is the problem-solving skills. It is essential to understand what the problem is and how the problem should be solved. So, the application of the learning is the Aptitude test.

Take a Free Campus Placement Mock Test

Please read the below blogs to know the detailed campus recruitment process of respective companies: 

Amazon Recruitment Process TCS Recruitment Process
IBM Recruitment Process Capgemini Recruitment Process
Wipro Recruitment Process Deloitte Recruitment Process
Tech Mahindra Recruitment Process Infosys Recruitment Process
Cognizant Recruitment Process Accenture Recruitment Process

Tips and Tricks to solve the Personal Interviews Questions for Campus Recruitment Test

  • If you want to stand out & beat the competition in your Campus Placements, the first step is to ace the Written Aptitude Test. Reasoning  Aptitude contributes a lot to increase your scores. No aptitude test is complete without questions based on coding, series & odd man out 
  • Methods of learning in one chapter can be used in other chapters
  • Whether the Question is simple or difficult you can know the options.
  • Focus on all areas in reasoning will help you crack Reasoning section

Click on below video session by P V Rama Sasank (IIM-Calcutta) having 10+ years of experience in Reasoning Ability, to know more about the topics (Coding, Number series and Odd Man Out)

The Following questions are based on coding, series & odd:

Series, Missing Term-Addition Based:

1. 8, 12, 14, 18, 20, 24, __

A. 30

B. 31

C. 28

D. 26

Answer: D

Explanation:

The given series in form  8, 12, 14, 18, 20, 24, _

The difference between the series in form 4, 2, 4, 2, 4, 2  

So the next term should be added +2 

so it will be 26.

2. 840, 820, 700, 780, 540, __

A. 210

B. 200

C. 220

D. 320

Answer: C

Explanation:

The given series are in form 840, 820, 780, 700, 540, __

The difference between them is 20, 40, 80, 160, 320

Every difference term is multiplied by 2

So, 160 becomes 320

The Next term will be (540-320)=220.

3. 8, 18, 29, 42, 58, __

A. 68

B. 63

C. 78

D. 84

Answer: C

Explanation:

The given series are in form 8, 18, 29, 42, 58, __

The difference between them is 10, 11, 13, 16, 20

The difference between 10,11= 1

The difference between 11,13= 2

The difference between 13,16= 3

The difference between 16,20= 4

So the next term in given series is (58+20)= 78

4. 1000, 992, 965, 901, ___

A. 667

B. 676

C. 776

D. 767

Answer: C

Explanation:

The difference between them is  8, 27, 64, 125

The differences are in form  2³, 3³, 4³, 5³

So the next term should be (901-125)= 776

5. 9, 40, 77, 118, 161, ____

A. 200

B. 207

C. 204

D. 210

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Level 1 difference between them is  31, 37, 41, 43,

The Level 2 difference between them is  6, 4, 2, 0

In the  Level 2, the next difference between them is 0

The Level 1 differences are 31, 37, 41, 43, (43+0)

So the series will be in form 9, 40, 77, 118, 161, (161+43) 

The next term will be  201

6. 1, 10, 33, 76, 145, __

A. 230

B. 236

C. 246

D. 252

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Level 1 difference between them is  9, 23, 43, 69

The Level 2 difference between them is  14, 20, 26,

The Level 3 difference between them is  6

The Level 2 the next term will be is  14, 20, 26, (26+6)

The Level 2 the next term will be is  14, 20, 26, 32

The Level 1 the next term will be is  9, 23, 43, 69, (69+32)

The Level 1 the next term will be is  9, 23, 43, 69, 101

The next term in the given series is 145+101=246

Series-missing term-Multiplication Based:

7. 6, 15, 35, 77, 163,__

A. 200

B. 221

C. 324

D. 337

Answer: D

Explanation:

The series in the format of  6*2+3=15

                                15*2+5=35

                                 35*2+7=77

                                77*2+9=163

                                163*2+11=337

The next term in the series is 337

8. 60, 120, 210, 315, __, 393.75

A. 465.5

B. 315

C. 350

D. 393.75

Answer: D

Explanation:

The series in the format  60*(8/4)=120

                          120*(7/4)=210

                          210*(6/4)=315

                          315*(5/4)=393.75

                          393.75*(4/4)=393.75

9. 5,17,37,113, 229, __.

A. 625

B. 620

C. 689

D. 628

Answer: C

Explanation:

The series in form  5* 3+2=17

                    17*2+3=37

                    37*3+2=113

                    113*2+3=229

                    229*3+2=689

10. 10. 3, 7, 16, 35, 74, 153, __.

A. 300

B. 312

C. 212

D. 316

Answer: B

Explanation:

The series in the format   3*2+1=7

                           7*2+2=16

                           16*2+3=35  

                           35*2+4=74

                           74*2+5=153

                           153*2+6=312 

Series-Missing Term-Mixed series Based:

11. 6, 12, 9, 18, 15, 30, 27,__.

A.  54

B. 24

C. 85

D. 30

Answer: A

Explanation:

In the given series there are two series

In which one is odd series and another is even series

The odd series is  6,9,15,27

The even series is 12, 18, 30

The differences in the even series are 6,12, (12*2)

The even series is 12,18, 30, (30+24).

The next term in the even series is 54.

12. 41, 47, 53, 59, 61,__.

A. 63

B. 65

C. 67

D. 69

Answer: C

Explanation:

In the given series there are two series

In which one is odd series and another is even series

The odd series is  41, 53, 61

The even series is 47, 59

The odd series in the form  41+12=53

                                      53+8=61

                                      61+4=65

The given even series in the form 49+12=59

                                               59+8=67

The next term in the series is 67

13. 10, 2, 14, 3, 18, 5, 22,__.

A. 26

B. 7

C. 8

D. cannot be determined.

Answer: D

Explanation:

In the given series there are two series

In which one is odd series and another is even series

The odd series is  10,14,18,22,

The even series is  2,3,5.

In the even series, the next term will be either 7 or 8

The even series in the order prime numbers so it will be 7

The even series in the order 3-2=1

                             5-3=2

                             8-5=3

so we cannot determine the answer.

14. A, D, H, M,__

A. V

B. U

C. S

D. X

Answer: C

Explanation:

The letters in the series A, D, H, M

Convert the alphabets into the numbers  1, 4, 8,13

The difference between the numbers is (4-1)=3

                                      (8-4)=4

                                      (13-8)=5

The next difference should be 6

The  difference of the numbers are in form 1,4,8,13,(13+6) 

The next alphabet is 'S'

15. AN, BO, CP, __, ER

A. DQ

B. DS

C. FQ

D. FS

Answer: A

Explanation:

The first series is A, B, C, D, E

The second series is N, O, P, Q, R.

So the middle term is DQ

16. Z82, T73, O65, K57, ____.

A. G44

B. I42

C. H42

D. H44 

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Alphabets series are Z, T, O, K

Convert the alphabets into the numbers 26, 20, 15, 11

The difference between them is 26-20=6

                                              20-15=5

                                              15-11=4

The next difference term should be 3

So the term 11-3=8

The 8th term will be H

The number series is divided into two series

The first series is 8, 7, 6, 5, 4

The next term in the first series is 4

The second series is 2, 3, 5, 7.

The second series is prime numbers

The next term should be the prime number.

According to the question, the next term is H42

Series-Exponent &Miscellaneous based:

17. 15, 80, 255, 624,__.

A.  998

B. 1023

C. 1295 

D. 2400

Answer: C

Explanation:

The series in the form 2^4-1=15

                       3^4-1=80

                       4^4-1=256

                       5^4-1=625

                       6^4-1=1295

The next term in the series is 1295

18. 1, 12, 59, 290,__.

A. 1017

B. 1024

C. 1029

D. 908

Answer: A

Explanation:

The series in the form  4^1-3=1

                        4^2-4=12

                        4^3-5=59                                      

                        4^4-6=290

                        4^5-7=1017

The next term in the given series is 1017

19. 379, 468, 557, 646,__

A. 778

B. 735

C. 745

D. 754

Answer: B

Explanation:

The series is divided into three series.

The first series is 3, 4, 5, 6

so the next term in the first series is  7

The second series is 7, 6, 5, 4

So the next term in the second series is 3

The third series is 9, 8, 7, 6

The next term in the third series is 5

According to the question, the next term is 735

20. 6, 9, 15, 24, 39, 63, 102,__.

A. 175   

B. 165

C. 155

D. 145

Answer: B

Explanation:

The series in the form 6+9=15

                       15+9=24

                       24+15=39

                       39+24=63

                       63+39=102

                       102+63=165

The next term in the given series is 165

Series-Missing term

21. What is the value of x+y in the grid below

A. 5

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12

12 21 33
13 Y 17
X 2 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

The first row we can conclude that 12+21=33

                                   13+y=17 then y=4

                                   x+2=4  then x=2

Then x+y=2+4=6

22. What is the value of the 3A-2B?

A. 0

B. 28

C. 14

D. 42

9 8 14
18 16 A
27 Y B
X 32 56

Answer: A

Explanation:

From the given table the first column determines 9, 9*2, 9*3,9*4

then x=36

From the given table the second column determines 8, 8*2, 8*3,8*4

then y=24

From the given table the third column determines 14, 14*2, 14*3, 14*4

then A=28 ,B=42

23. Consider 4*4 grid with digits 1 to 4. so, each column, each row, and each of the 4 (2*2) subgrids that compose the main grid contains all the digits from 1 to 4. The same digit should not appear twice in the same row, columns or in any of the 4 grids. 

1 A B 4
C 3 D E
F G 4 H
3 I J 2

What is the sum of F and H?

A. 5

B. 7

C. 6

D. 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

By following the Sudoku method we can determine the values

According to the question F+H=2+3=5

What is the value of AB+DF?

A. 10

B. 8

C. 12

D. 16

Answer: A

Explanation: 

According to the question AB+DF=2*3+2*2=10.

 

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Preparation Video and Questions on Simplification & Approximation for Competitive Exams.

What is Campus Recruitment Process?

Generally, a Campus Placement Process has four components:

 * Pre Placement Talk 

 * Aptitude test 

 * Group Discussion 

 * Interview which can be various combinations of Technical and HR rounds 

Aptitude Test for Placements:

The Aptitude test consists of basic problems in quantitative ability, logical reasoning, and verbal ability. The primary objective of this test is to check the problem-solving skills of the test-taker. Any job out there is the problem-solving skills. It is essential to understand what the problem is and how the problem should be solved. So, the application of the learning is the Aptitude test.

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Tips and Tricks to solve the Simplification and Approximation Questions for Campus Recruitment Test

  • If you want to stand out & beat the competition in your Campus Placements, the first step is to ace the Written Aptitude Test. Quantitative Aptitude contributes a lot to increase your scores. No aptitude test is complete without questions based on Simplification & Approximations.
  • Methods of learning in one chapter can be used in other chapters.
  • Whether the Question is simple or difficult you can know the options.
  • Focus on all areas in quantitative will help you crack quantitative section

Watch the below video to learn Tips & Tricks to crack Questions on Simplification and Approximation in Competitive Exams.

The Following questions are based on Simplification and Approximation:

Simplification involving Fraction:

1.4 1/7-8 2/3+? 4/7-6 11/33=15 5/7

A. 46

B. 36

C. 26

D. 33

Answer: C

Explanation:

According to the given question

Isolate whole and given fraction

Ler 'x' be the number to find

 4                    1/7   

-8                    -2/3

 x                     4/7

-6                    -1/3

-10+x-1=15        5/7

From the above  point,  '-1' will be combing the fraction part of (-2/3,-1/3) it will get  '-1'

x-11=15

x=26

2. 4/3-11/9+22/27-?+19/6 =35/27

A. 44/227

B. 23/27

C. 76/27

D. 53/27

Answer: C

Explanation:

Let 'x' be a number to find

4/3-11/9+22/7+19/6-35/27=x

4/3→1+1/3

-11/9→(-1-2/9)

19/6→3+1/6

35/27→(-1-8/27)

so according to the question

1+4/3-1-2/9+22/7+3+1/6-1-8/27=x

x=2+(18-12+44+9-16)/54

x=2+43/54

x=76/27

Simplification involving percentages

3. 8% of 720÷9% of 360=? *10% of 36

A. 20/81

B. 30/81

C. 50/81

D. 40/81

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let 'x' be a number to find

8% of 720 is same as 160% of 36

9% of 360 is same as 90% of 36

10% of 36=3.6

(160%  of 36)/(90% 0f 36)→16/9

16/9=x*3.6

x=16/32.4=160/324=40/81

4.12 1/2% of 800+3 3/4% of 1600=?% of 1000

A.40

B.15

C.25

D.16

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let 'x' be a number to find

25%=1/4th part    →12 1/2 %=1/8th part

37.5%=3/8thpart  →(3 3/4%)or(3.75%)=3/80th part

1/8th of 800 is 100

3/80 of 1600 is 60

100+60=x% of 1000

x=16%

5. 8 1/3 of 2400+6 1/4% of  3200=?

A.300

B.400

C.500

D.600

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let 'x' be a number to find

25/3%of 2400+25/4% of 3200=x

25%=1/4thpart

so the given equation

25*(1/3)% of 2400+25*(1/4)%of 3200

(1/4)*(1/3)*2400+(1/4)(1/4)*3200=200+200=400

Simplification using Algebraic

6. (175^4-25^4)/(175²-25²)=?

A.30,000

B.40,000

C.50,000

D.60,000

Answer: A

Explanation:

By using the formula (a^4-b^4)/(a²+b²)=(a²-b²)(a²+b²)/(a²+b²)=(a²-b²)

Then  (175²-25²)=(175+25)(175-25)=200*150=30,000

Inequalities based on Quadratic equations

7. 2x²-5x+2=0, 3y²-10y+3=0

A. x<y

B. x>y

C. No relationship

D. x=y

Answer: C

Explanation:

2x²–5x+2=0→eq1

3y²-10y+3=0→eq2

 The Product of the roots in eq1=2/2=1

 The Product of the roots in eq2=3/3=1

Both x and y has one positive root and one negative root

   x     y     

>0    >0

<0    <0

 So from the above box, we can determine

In the first case, x has the positive value and y has the negative value 

In the second case, x has the positive value and y has the positive value 

so the relationship cannot be determined

8. x²-2x+15=0,  y²+4y-12=0?

A.x<y

B.x>y

C.No relationship

D.x=y

Answer: C

Explanation:

x²-2x+15=0→eq1

y²+4y-12=0→eq2

The Product of the roots in eq1=-15

 The Product of the roots in eq2=-12

Both x and y has one positive root and one negative root

    x    y

>0     >0

<0     <0

 In the first case, x has the positive value and y has the negative value 

 In the second case, x has the positive value and y has the positive value 

Hence there is no relationship

9.16x²-10x+1=0, 4y²+17y-4=0

A.x<y

B.x>y

C.No relationship

D.x=y

Answer: B

Explanation:

16x²–10x+1=0ceq1

4y²-17y+4=0→eq2

The Product of the roots in eq1=1/16

The Product of the roots in eq2=1

Both x and y has one positive root and one negative root

Sum of the roots=10/16>0 from eq1

Sum of the roots=-17/4<0 from eq2

Both  x1 and  x2 greater than zero

Both  y1  and  y2 less than zero

Then x>y

10. x²=1024 y=√1024

A.x<y

B.x>y

C.No relationship

D.x=y

Answer: C

Explanation:

x²=1024

x=±32

y=√1024

y=32>0

Root of any positive number is always positive  

In one case x and y are equal

In other case y>x

so y>=x then there is no relationship

11. ==729  y³=27   

A. x<y

B. x>y

C. No relationship

D. x=y

Answer: C

Explanation:

x³=±√729=±27

x=3√±27=±3

y=3

In one case x and y are equal

In other case y>=x

so y>=x then there is no relationship

12.15x²-x-6=0; 30y²-y-20=0

A.x<y

B.x>y

C.No relationship

D.x=y

Answer: C

Explanation:

15x²-x-6=0→eq1

30y²-y-20=0→eq2

 The Product of the roots in eq1=-6/15<0

 The Product of the roots in eq2=-20/30<0

     x     y

x1>0   y1>0

x2<0  y2<0

 In the first case, x has the positive value and y has the negative value 

 In the second case, x has the positive value and y has the positive value 

Hence there is no relationship

13. x²+x-6=0; y²+3y-15=0

A. x<y

B. x>y

C. No relationship

D. x=y

Answer: C

Explanation:

x²+x-6=0→eq1

y²+3y-15=0→eq2

 The Product of the roots in eq1=-6<0

 The Product of the roots in eq2=-15<0

     x     y

x1>0   y1>0

x2<0   y2<0

In the first case, x has the positive value and y has the negative value 

In the second case, x has the positive value and y has the positive value 

Hence there is no relationship

14. x²-7x-198=0; y²+26y+165=0

A.x<y

B.x>y

C.No relationship

D.x=y

Answer: C

Explanation:

x²-7x-198=0→eq1

y²+26y-165=0→eq2

 The Product of the roots in eq1=-198<0

 The Product of the roots in eq2=-165<0

    x     y

x1>0   y1<0

x2<0   y2<0

Here both the values of  y are negative

x1>0(so, x1 greater than both y1 and y2

y²+26y-169=4

(y+13)²=2²

y+13=±2

y=-13-2 (or) y=-13+2

y=-15,-11

x²-7x-198=0

x²-18x+11x-198=0

x(x-18)+11(x-18)=0

x=-11,18

Hence x>=y

Hence there is no relation

15. x²-2x-80=0; y²+2y-80=0

A.x<y

B.x>y

C.No relationship

D.x=y

Answer: C

Explanation:

x²-2x-80=0→eq1

y²+2y-80=0→eq2

 The Product of the roots in eq1=-80<0

 The Product of the roots in eq2=-80<0

    x           y

x1>0     y1>0

x2<0     y2<0

In the first case, x has the positive value and y has the negative value 

In the second case, x has the positive value and y has the positive value 

Hence there is no relationship

Simplification using BODMAS

16.18*14÷7*4-40*1 3/4–4*5=?

A. 100

B. -80

C. 60

D. 150

Answer: C

Explanation:

We have to follow the order to solve the problem

Brackets: simplify the values inside the brackets before you discard them

Order: complete the calculations involving  powers or roots

Division and multiplication: Both are of equal priority; go left to right

Addition and Multiplication: Both are of equal priority; go left to right

18*14÷7*4-40*1 3/4–4*5=?

252÷7*4-40*8/5-20

36*4-64-20

144-84=60

17. 4+21*5=?

A.107

B.108

C.109

D.106

Answer: C

Explanation:

4+105=109

18. 21-16÷(5+3)=?

A.12

B.19

C.15

D.16

Answer: B

Explanation:

21-16÷8=21-2=19

19. 11+7*(2+14)=?

A.124

B.123

C.125

D.128

Answer: B

Explanation:

11+112=123

20. (108+207)-550÷52+ 10=?

A.301

B.303

C.300

D.302

Answer: B

Explanation:

315-550÷25+10=315-22+10=303

21. 6+6÷6+5*5-5=?

A.20

B.27

C.24

D.23

Answer: B

Explanation:

6+1+25-5=7+20=27

22. 4*3÷2*3*5÷6*8=?

A.120

B.180

C.150

D.90

Answer: A

Explanation:

12÷2*3*5÷6*8=6*3*5÷6*8=90÷6*8=15*8=120

23. 360÷2÷3÷4=?

A.15

B.16

C.19

D. 20

Answer: A

Explanation:

360÷2÷3÷4=180÷3÷4=60÷4=15

24.16+4*5÷2.5-860÷86*5+40÷2

A.-5

B.-6

C.-4

D.-3

Answer: B

Explanation:

According to the question 16+20÷2.5-860÷86*5+40÷2

16+20÷2.5-10*5+40÷2

16+8-50+20=24-30=-6

25. 240÷15*4÷8-12*3÷4++15-16=?

A.-2

B.-3

C.-4

D.2

Answer: A

Explanation:

26. 420*5÷6+25*2÷4*8-300÷75÷5

A. 449.2

B. 550

C. 448

D. 447.2

Answer: A

Explanation:

2100÷6+25*2÷4*8-300÷75÷5

350+50÷4*8-300÷75÷5

350÷12.5*8-4÷5

350÷100-0.8=449.2

Simplification involving parenthesis

27. 320-{160*5÷(460÷23*10)}*10*(4+8÷2)

A.1

B.0

C.2

D.3

Answer: B

Explanation:

320-{800÷(20*10)}*10*(4+4)

320-{800÷200}*10*8

320-4*10*8

320-320=0

28.175+[360-{180*4-(32-(72÷5*25))}]

A.146

B.145

C.143

D.148

Answer: C

Explanation:

175+[360-{180*4-(32-360)}]

175+[360-{180*4-328}]

175+[360-{720-328}]

175+360-392=143

29.1000*[4000÷{720*(160÷(320÷4)}]

A.25000/9

B.32000/9

C.24000/9

D.52000/9

Answer: A

Explanation:

1000*[4000÷{720*(160÷80)

1000*[4000÷{720*2}]

1000*[4000÷1440]

1000*4000/1440=25000/9

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